Last Updated on September 20, 2021 by Admin 2
312-38 : Certified Network Defender : Part 05
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________ is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Bluetooth is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices,
creating personal area networks with high levels of security. Created by telecoms vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was originally conceived as a wireless alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices, overcoming problems of synchronization. Today Bluetooth is managed by the Bluetooth Special Interest Group.
In which of the following attacks does an attacker use software that tries a large number of key combinations in order to get a password?
- Buffer overflow
- Brute force attack
- Zero-day attack
- Smurf attack
In a brute force attack, an attacker uses software that tries a large number of key combinations in order to get a password. To prevent such attacks, users should create passwords that are more difficult to guess, i.e., by using a minimum of six characters, alphanumeric combinations, and lower-upper case combinations.
Answer option D is incorrect. Smurf is an attack that generates significant computer network traffic on a victim network. This is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods a target system via spoofed broadcast ping messages. In such attacks, a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP broadcast addresses, all of which have a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all hosts, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply, which multiplies the traffic by the number of hosts responding.
Answer option A is incorrect. Buffer overflow is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept. It helps an attacker not only to execute a malicious code on the target system but also to install backdoors on the target system for further attacks. All buffer overflow attacks are due to only sloppy programming or poor memory management by the application developers. The main types of buffer overflows are:
Format string overflow
Answer option C is incorrect. A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the mvulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to mitigate such attacks.
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option A is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.
Which of the following is a credit card-sized device used to securely store personal information and used in conjunction with a PIN number to authenticate users?
- Proximity card
- Java card
- SD card
- Smart card
A smart card is a credit card-sized device used to securely store personal information such as certificates, public and private keys, passwords, etc. It is used in conjunction with a PIN number to authenticate users. In Windows, smart cards are used to enable certificate-based authentication. To use smart cards, Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) must be configured in Windows.
Answer option B is incorrect. Java Card is a technology that allows Java-based applications to be run securely on smart cards and small memory footprint devices. Java Card gives a user the ability to program devices and make them application specific. It is widely used in SIM
cards and ATM cards. Java Card products are based on the Java Card Platform specifications developed by Sun Microsystems, a supplementary of Oracle Corporation. Many Java card products also rely on the global platform specifications for the secure management of applications on the card. The main goals of the Java Card technology are portability and security.
Answer option A is incorrect. Proximity card (or Prox Card) is a generic name for contactless integrated circuit devices used for security access or payment systems. It can refer to the older 125 kHz devices or the newer 13.56 MHz contactless RFID cards, most commonly known as contactless smartcards. Modern proximity cards are covered by the ISO/IEC 14443 (Proximity Card) standard. There is also a related ISO/IEC 15693 (Vicinity Card) standard. Proximity cards are powered by resonant energy transfer and have a range of 0-3 inches in most instances. The user will usually be able to leave the card inside a wallet or purse. The price of the cards is also low, usually US$2-$5, allowing them to be used in applications such as identification cards, keycards, payment cards and public transit fare cards.
Answer option C is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.
Which of the following OSI layers establishes, manages, and terminates the connections between the local and remote applications?
- Data Link layer
- Network layer
- Application layer
- Session layer
The session layer of the OSI/RM controls the dialogues (connections) between computers. It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex, or simplex operation, and establishes checkpointing, adjournment, termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session checkpointing and recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The Session Layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application environments that use remote procedure calls.
Answer option C is incorrect. The Application Layer of TCP/IP model refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication. Examples of application layer protocols include the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Data coded according to application layer protocols are then encapsulated into one or more transport layer protocols, which in turn use lower layer protocols to affect actual data transfer.
Answer option A is incorrect. The Data Link Layer is Layer 2 of the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking. It corresponds to or is part of the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model. The Data Link Layer is the protocol layer which transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network or between nodes on the same local area network segment. The Data Link Layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and might provide the means to detect and possibly correct errors that may occur in the Physical Layer. Examples of data link protocols are Ethernet for local area networks (multi-node), the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), HDLC, and ADCCP for point-to-point (dual-node) connections.
Answer option B is incorrect. The network layer controls the operation of subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take, based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. Routers work on the Network layer of the OSI stack.
Adam, a malicious hacker, is sniffing an unprotected Wi-FI network located in a local store with Wireshark to capture hotmail e-mail traffic. He knows that lots of people are using their laptops for browsing the Web in the store. Adam wants to sniff their e-mail messages traversing the unprotected Wi-Fi network. Which of the following Wireshark filters will Adam configure to display only the packets with hotmail email messages?
- (http = “login.pass.com”) && (http contains “SMTP”)
- (http contains “email”) && (http contains “hotmail”)
- (http contains “hotmail”) && (http contains “Reply-To”)
- (http = “login.passport.com”) && (http contains “POP3”)
Adam will use (http contains “hotmail”) && (http contains “Reply-To”) filter to display only the packets with hotmail email messages. Each Hotmail message contains the tag Reply-To: and “xxxx-xxx- xxx.xxxx.hotmail.com” in the received tag. Wireshark is a free packet sniffer computer application. It is used for network troubleshooting, analysis, software and communications protocol development, and education. Wireshark is very similar to tcpdump, but it has a graphical front-end, and many more information sorting and filtering options. It allows the user to see all traffic being passed over the network (usually an Ethernet network but support is being added for others) by putting the network interface into promiscuous mode. Wireshark uses pcap to capture packets, so it can only capture the packets on the networks supported by pcap. It has the following features: Data can be captured “from the wire” from a live network connection or read from a file that records the already-captured packets. Live data can be read from a number of types of network, including Ethernet, IEEE 802.11, PPP, and loopback. Captured network data can be browsed via a GUI, or via the terminal (command line) version of the utility, tshark. Captured files can be programmatically edited or converted via command-line switches to the “editcap” program. Data display can be refined using a display filter. Plugins can be created for dissecting new protocols.
Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.
Which of the following are the distance-vector routing protocols? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Following are the two distance-vector routing protocols:
RIP: RIP is a dynamic routing protocol used in local and wide area networks. As such, it is classified as an interior gateway protocol (IGP). It uses the distance-vector routing algorithm. It employs the hop count as a routing metric. RIP prevents routing loops by implementing a limit on the number of hops allowed in a path from the source to a destination. It implements the split horizon, route poisoning, and hold-down mechanisms to prevent incorrect routing information from being propagated.
IGRP: Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a Cisco proprietary distance vector Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP). It is used by Cisco routers to exchange routing data within an autonomous system (AS). This is a classful routing protocol and does not support variable length subnet masks (VLSM). IGRP supports multiple metrics for each route, including bandwidth, delay, load, MTU, and reliability.
Answer options B and A are incorrect. OSPF and IS-IS are link state routing protocols.
With which of the following forms of acknowledgment can the sender be informed by the data receiver about all segments that have arrived successfully?
- Block Acknowledgment
- Negative Acknowledgment
- Cumulative Acknowledgment
- Selective Acknowledgment
Selective Acknowledgment (SACK) is one of the forms of acknowledgment. With selective acknowledgments, the sender can be informed by a data receiver about all segments that have arrived successfully, so the sender retransmits only those segments that have actually been lost. The selective acknowledgment extension uses two TCP options: The first is an enabling option, “SACK-permitted”, which may be sent in a SYN segment to indicate that the SACK option can be used
once the connection is established. The other is the SACK option itself, which can be sent over an established connection once permission has been given by “SACK-permitted”.
Answer option A is incorrect. Block Acknowledgment (BA) was initially defined in IEEE 802.11e as an optional scheme to improve the MAC efficiency. IEEE 802.11n capable devices are also referred to as High Throughput (HT) devices. Instead of transmitting an individual ACK for every MPDU, multiple MPDUs can be acknowledged together using a single BA frame. Block Ack (BA) contains bitmap size of 64*16 bits. Each bit of this bitmap represents the status (success/failure) of an MPDU.
Answer option B is incorrect. With Negative Acknowledgment, the receiver explicitly notifies the sender which packets, messages, or segments were received incorrectly that may need to be retransmitted.
Answer option C is incorrect. With Cumulative Acknowledgment, the receiver acknowledges that it has correctly received a packet, message, or segment in a stream which implicitly informs the sender that the previous packets were received correctly. TCP uses cumulative acknowledgment with its TCP sliding window.
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________is a method for monitoring the e-mail delivery to the intended recipient.
- Email tracking
Email tracking is a method for monitoring the e-mail delivery to the intended recipient. Most tracking technologies utilize some form of digitally time-stamped record to reveal the exact time and date at which e-mail was received or opened, as well the IP address of the recipient. When a user uses such tools to send an e-mail, forward an e-mail, reply to an e-mail, or modify an e-mail, the resulting actions and tracks of the original e-mail are logged. The sender is notified of all actions performed on the tracked e-mail by an automatically generated e-mail. eMailTracker Pro and MailTracking.com are the tools that can be used to perform email tracking.
You work as the network administrator for uCertify Inc. The company has planned to add the support for IPv6 addressing. The initial phase deployment of IPv6 requires support from some IPv6-only devices. These devices need to access servers that support only IPv4. Which of the following tools would be suitable to use?
- Multipoint tunnels
- Multipoint tunnels-PT
- Point-to-point tunnels
- Native IPv6
NAT-PT (Network address translation-Protocol Translation) is useful when an IPv4-only host needs to communicate with an IPv4-only host. NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation) is an implementation of RFC 2766 as specified by the IETF. NAT-PT was designed so that it can be run on low-end, commodity hardware. NAT-PT runs in user space, capturing and translating packets between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks (and vice-versa). NAT-PT uses the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Neighbor Discovery (ND) on the IPv4 and IPv6 network systems, respectively.
NAT-Protocol Translation can be used to translate both the source and destination IP addresses.
Answer option D is incorrect. Native IPv6 is of use when the IPv6 deployment is pervasive, with heavy traffic loads.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-point tunnels work well when IPv6 is needed only in a subset of sites. These point-to-point tunnels act as virtual point-to-point serial link. These are useful when the traffic is of very high volume.
Answer option A is incorrect. The multipoint tunnels are used for IPv6 deployment even when IPv6 is needed in a subset of sites and is suitable when the traffic is infrequent and of less predictable volume.
Which of the following types of cyberstalking damages the reputation of their victim and turns other people against them by setting up their own Websites, blogs, or user pages for this purpose?
- False accusation
- Attempts to gather information about the victim
- Encouraging others to harass the victim
- False victimization
In false accusations, many cyberstalkers try to damage the reputation of their victim and turn other people against them. They post false information about them on Websites. They may set up their own Websites, blogs, or user pages for this purpose. They post allegations about the victim to newsgroups, chat rooms, or other sites that allow public contributions.
Answer option D is incorrect. In false victimization, the cyberstalker claims that the victim is harassing him/her.
Answer option C is incorrect. In this type of cyberstalking, many cyberstalkers try to involve third parties in the harassment. They claim that the victim has harmed the stalker in some way, or may post the victim’s name and telephone number in order to encourage others to join the pursuit.
Answer option B is incorrect. In an attempt to gather information, cyberstalkers may approach their victim’s friends, family, and work colleagues to obtain personal information. They may advertise for information on the Internet. They often will monitor the victim’s online activities and attempt to trace their IP address in an effort to gather more information about their victims.
Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- Class A
- Class B
- Class D
- Class E
- Class C
Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254.
Answer option A is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126.
Answer option B is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191.
Answer option E is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to 223.
Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?
- Log analysis
- Incident handling
- Business Continuity Management
- Patch management
Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.
Answer option D is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks:
Maintaining current knowledge of available patches
Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems
Ensuring that patches are installed properly
Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations requiredA number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including RingMaster’s Automated Patch Management, PatchLink Update, and Gibraltar’s Everguard.
Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid.
Answer option B is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner. It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. In the ______________method, a device or computer that transmits data needs to first listen to the channel for an amount of time to check for any activity on the channel.
Explanation: Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is an access method used by wireless networks (IEEE 802.11). In this method, a device or computer that transmits data needs to first listen to the channel for an amount of time to check for any activity on the channel. If the channel is sensed as idle, the device is allowed to transmit data. If the channel is busy, the device postpones its transmission. Once the channel is clear, the device sends a signal telling all other devices not to transmit data, and then sends its packets. In Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) networks that use CSMA/CD, the device or computer continues to wait for a time and checks if the channel is still free. If the channel is free, the device transmits packets and waits for an acknowledgment signal indicating that the packets were received.
Which of the following organizations is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses?
ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. ICANN is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses. ICANN’s tasks include responsibility for IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, top-level domain name system management, and root server system management functions.
Answer option A is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization, widely known as ISO, is an international-standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards organizations. Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promulgates worldwide proprietary industrial and commercial standards. It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. While ISO defines itself as a non-governmental organization, its ability to set standards that often become law, either through treaties or national standards, makes it more powerful than most non-governmental organizations. In practice, ISO acts as a consortium with strong links to governments.
Answer option C is incorrect. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international industry consortium that develops common standards for the World Wide Web to promote its evolution and interoperability. It was founded in October 1994 by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Laboratory for Computer Science [MIT/LCS] in collaboration with CERN, where the Web had originated, with support from DARPA and the European Commission.
Answer option D is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
- Contingency plan
- Disaster recovery plan
- Business continuity plan
- Continuity of Operations Plan
A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption.
Answer option D is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.
Answer option B is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity.
Answer option C is incorrect. Business continuity planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. The BCP lifecycle is as follows:
Which of the following examines network traffic to identify threats that generate unusual traffic flows, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, certain forms of malware, and policy violations?
- Network Behavior Analysis
- Network-based Intrusion Prevention
- Wireless Intrusion Prevention System
- Host-based Intrusion Prevention
Network Behavior Analysis examines network traffic to identify threats that generate unusual traffic flows, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, certain forms of malware, and policy violations.
Answer option B is incorrect. Network-based Intrusion Prevention (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.
Answer option C is incorrect. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) monitors a wireless network for suspicious traffic by analyzing wireless networking protocols.
Answer option D is incorrect. Host-based Intrusion Prevention (HIPS) is an installed software package that monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.
Which of the following routing metrics refers to the length of time that is required to move a packet from source to destination through the internetwork?
- Routing delay
- Path length
Routing delay refers to the length of time that is required to move a packet from source to destination through the internetwork. Delay depends on many factors, including the following:
Bandwidth of intermediate network links
Port queues at each router along the way
Network congestion on all intermediate network links
Physical distance to be traveled
Since delay is a conglomeration of several important variables, it is a common and useful metric.
Answer option D is incorrect. Path length is defined as the sum of the costs associated with each link traversed.
Answer option B is incorrect. Bandwidth refers to the available traffic capacity of a link.
Answer option C is incorrect. Load refers to the degree to which a network resource, such as a router, is busy.
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The ______________ model is a description framework for computer network protocols and is sometimes called the Internet Model or the DoD Model.
The TCP/IP model is a description framework for computer network protocols. It describes a set of general design guidelines and implementations of specific networking protocols to enable computers to communicate over a network. TCP/IP provides end-to-end connectivity specifying how data should be formatted, addressed, transmitted, routed and received at the destination. Protocols exist for a variety of different types of communication services between computers. The TCP/IP Model is sometimes called the Internet Model or the DoD Model. The TCP/IP model has four unique layers as shown in the image. This layer architecture is often compared with the seven-layer OSI Reference Model. The TCP/IP model and related protocols are maintained by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A ______________ is a block of data that a Web server stores on the client computer.
Cookie is a block of data, which a Web server stores on the client computer. If no expiration date is set for the cookie, it expires when the browser closes. If the expiration date is set for a future date, the cookie will be stored on the client’s disk after the session ends. If the expiration date is set for a past date, the cookie is deleted.