Last Updated on September 20, 2021 by Admin 2

312-38 : Certified Network Defender : Part 09

  1. Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Class C
    • Class D
    • Class A
    • Class B
    • Class E
    Explanation:
    Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254.
    Answer option C is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126.
    Answer option D is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191.
    Answer option A is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to 223.
  2. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides an attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform war dialing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • ToneLoc
    • Wingate
    • THC-Scan
    • NetStumbler
    Explanation:
    THC-Scan and ToneLoc are tools used for war dialing. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides the attacker unauthorized access to a computer.
    Answer option D is incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. It uses an 802.11 Probe Request
    that has been sent to the broadcast destination address.
    Answer option B is incorrect. Wingate is a proxy server.
  3. Which of the following protocols is used to share information between routers to transport IP Multicast packets among networks?

    • RSVP
    • DVMRP
    • RPC
    • LWAPP
    Explanation:
    The Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP) is used to share information between routers to transport IP Multicast packets among networks. It uses a reverse path-flooding technique and is used as the basis for the Internet’s multicast backbone (MBONE). In particular, DVMRP is notorious for poor network scaling, resulting from reflooding, particularly with versions that do not implement pruning. DVMRP’s flat unicast routing mechanism also affects its capability to scale.
    Answer option A is incorrect. The Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is a Transport layer protocol designed to reserve resources across a network for an integrated services Internet. RSVP does not transport application data but is rather an Internet control protocol, like ICMP, IGMP, or routing protocols. RSVP provides receiver-initiated setup of resource reservations for multicast or unicast data flows with scaling and robustness.
    RSVP can be used by either hosts or routers to request or deliver specific levels of quality of service (QoS) for application data streams. RSVP defines how applications place reservations and how they can leave the reserved resources once the need for them has ended. RSVP operation will generally result in resources being reserved in each node along a path.
    Answer option C is incorrect. A remote procedure call (RPC) hides the details of the network by using the common procedure call mechanism familiar to every programmer. Like any ordinary procedure, RPC is also synchronous and parameters are passed to it. A process of the client calls a function on a remote server and remains suspended until it gets back the results.
    Answer option D is incorrect. LWAPP (Lightweight Access Point Protocol) is a protocol used to control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. This can reduce the amount of time spent on configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting a large network. This also allows network administrators to closely analyze the network.
  4. Which of the following is a network interconnectivity device that translates different communication protocols and is used to connect dissimilar network technologies?

    • Gateway
    • Router
    • Bridge
    • Switch
    Explanation:
    A gateway is a network interconnectivity device that translates different communication protocols and is used to connect dissimilar network technologies. It provides greater functionality than a router or bridge because a gateway functions both as a translator and a router. Gateways are slower than bridges and routers. A gateway is an application layer device.
    Answer option B is incorrect. A router is an electronic device that interconnects two or more computer networks. It selectively interchanges packets of data between them. It is a networking device whose software and hardware are customized to the tasks of routing and forwarding information. It helps in forwarding data packets between networks.
    Answer option C is incorrect. A bridge is an interconnectivity device that connects two local area networks (LANs) or two segments of the same LAN using the same communication protocols, and provides address filtering between them. Users can use this device to divide busy networks into segments and reduce network traffic. A bridge broadcasts data packets to all the possible destinations within a specific segment. Bridges operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model.
    Answer option D is incorrect. A switch is a network device that selects a path or circuit for sending a data unit to its next destination. It is not required in smaller networks, but is required in large inter-networks, where there can be many possible ways of transmitting a message from a sender to destination. The function of switch is to select the best possible path.
    On an Ethernet local area network (LAN), a switch determines from the physical device (Media Access Control or MAC) address in each incoming message frame which output port to forward it to and out of. In a wide area packet-switched network, such as the Internet, a switch determines from the IP address in each packet which output port to use for the next part of its trip to the intended destination.
  5. Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?

    • PSAD
    • Hping
    • NetRanger
    • Nmap
    Explanation:
    PSAD is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic. It includes many signatures from the IDS to detect probes for various backdoor programs such as EvilFTP, GirlFriend, SubSeven, DDoS tools (mstream, shaft), and advanced port scans (FIN, NULL, XMAS). If it is combined with fwsnort and the Netfilter string match extension, it detects most of the attacks described in the Snort rule set that involve application layer data.
    Answer option C is incorrect. NetRanger is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that includes the following tools: Ping tool, Trace Route tool, Host Lookup tool, Internet time synchronizer, Whois tool, Finger Unix hosts tool, Host and port scanning tool, check multiple POP3 mail accounts tool, manage dialup connections tool, Quote of the day tool, and monitor Network Settings tool. These tools are integrated in order to use an application interface with full online help. NetRanger is designed for both new and experienced users. This tool is used to help diagnose network problems and to get information about users, hosts, and networks on the Internet or on a user computer network. NetRanger uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.
    Answer option D is incorrect. Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a “map” of the network. Just like many simple port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and, on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows, etc.
  6. FILL BLANK

    Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
    A ______________ is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger network.

    • demilitarized zone
    Explanation:
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s Local Area Network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than the whole of the network. Hosts in the DMZ have limited connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network, though communication with other hosts in the DMZ and to the external network is allowed. This allows hosts in the DMZ to provide services to both the internal and external networks, while an intervening firewall controls the traffic between the DMZ servers and the internal network clients. In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network such as the Internet.
  7. Which of the following statements are true about security risks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

    • They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
    • They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
    • They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
    • They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
    Explanation:
    In information security, security risks are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability. In other words, security risk is a probabilistic function of a given threat agent exercising a particular vulnerability and the impact of that risk on the organization. Security risks can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks. These risks can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
    Answer option B is incorrect. Security risks can never be removed completely but can be mitigated by taking proper actions.
  8. Which of the following statements are TRUE about Demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to the Local Area Network of an organization.
    • Hosts in the DMZ have full connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network.
    • Demilitarized zone is a physical or logical sub-network that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger un-trusted network.
    • In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network like the Internet.
    Explanation:
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s Local Area Network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than the whole of the network. Hosts in the DMZ have limited connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network, though communication with other hosts in the DMZ and to the external network is allowed. This allows hosts in the DMZ to provide services to both the internal and external networks, while an intervening firewall controls the traffic between the DMZ servers and the internal network clients. In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network such as the Internet.
  9. Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?

    • Log analysis
    • Patch management
    • Incident handling
    • Business Continuity Management
    Explanation:
    Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand,
    reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.
    Answer option B is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks:
    Maintaining current knowledge of available patches
    Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems
    Ensuring that patches are installed properly
    Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations required A number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including Ring Master’s Automated Patch Management, Patch Link
    Update, and Gibraltar’s Ever guard.
    Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid.
    Answer option C is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner.
    It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.
  10. Jason works as a System Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Sam, an employee of the company, accidentally changes some of the applications and system settings. He complains to Jason that his system is not working properly. To troubleshoot the problem, Jason diagnoses the internals of his computer and observes that some changes have been made in Sam’s computer registry. To rectify the issue, Jason has to restore the registry. Which of the following utilities can Jason use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Resplendent registrar
    • Regedit.exe
    • Reg.exe
    • EventCombMT
    Explanation:
    The resplendent registrar is a tool that offers a complete and safe solution to administrators and power users for maintaining the registry. It can be used for maintaining the registry of desktops and remote computers on the network. It offers a solution for backing up and restoring registries, fast background search and replace, adding descriptions to the registry keys, etc. This program is very attractive and easy to use, as it comes in an explorer-style interface. It can be used for Windows 2003/XP/2K/NT/ME/9x.
    Reg.exe is a command-line utility that is used to edit the Windows registry. It has the ability to import, export, back up, and restore keys, as well as to compare, modify, and delete keys. It can perform almost all tasks that can be done using the Windows-based Regedit.exe tool.
    Registry Editor (REGEDIT) is a registry editing utility that can be used to look at information in the registry. REGEDIT.EXE enables users to search for strings, values, keys, and subkeys and is useful to find a specific value or string. Users can also use REGEDIT.EXE to add, delete, or modify registry entries.
    Answer option D is incorrect. EventCombMT is a multithreaded tool that is used to search the event logs of several different computers for specific events, all from one central location. It is a little-known Microsoft tool to run searches for event IDs or text strings against Windows event logs for systems, applications, and security, as well as File Replication Service (FRS), domain name system (DNS), and Active Directory (AD) logs where applicable. The MT stands for multi-threaded. The program is part of the Account Lockout and Management Tools program package for Windows 2000, 2003, and XP.
  11. Which of the following are the valid steps for securing routers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Use a password that is easy to remember for a router’s administrative console.
    • Use a complex password for a router’s administrative console.
    • Configure access list entries to prevent unauthorized connections and traffic routing.
    • Keep routers updated with the latest security patches.
    Explanation:
    The following are the valid steps for securing routers and devices:
    Configure access list entries to prevent unauthorized connections and traffic routing.
    Use a complex password for a router’s administrative console.
    Keep routers in locked rooms.
    Keep routers updated with the latest security patches.
    Use monitoring an equipment to protect routers and devices.
    Router is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks. It is used to connect multiple networks, and it determines the path to be taken by each data packet to its destination computer. Router maintains a routing table of the available routes and their conditions. By using this information, along with distance and cost algorithms, the router determines the best path to be taken by the data packets to the destination computer. A router can connect dissimilar networks, such as Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring, and route data packets among them. Routers operate at the network layer (layer 3) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
    A security patch is a program that eliminates a vulnerability exploited by hackers.
  12. In which of the following attacks does an attacker successfully insert an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?

    • Session hijacking
    • Denial-of-Service
    • Man-in-the-middle
    • Buffer overflow
    Explanation:
    Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host. The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.
    Answer option B is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as a network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to the network. The effects of a DoS attack are as follows:
    Saturates network resources
    Disrupts connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services
    Disrupts services to a specific computer
    Causes failure to access a Web site
    Results in an increase in the amount of spam
    A Denial-of-Service attack is very common on the Internet because it is much easier to accomplish. Most of the DoS attacks rely on the weaknesses in the TCP/IP protocol.
    Answer option D is incorrect. A buffer-overflow attack is performed when a hacker fills a field, typically an address bar, with more characters than it can accommodate. The excess characters can be run as executable code, effectively giving the hacker control of the computer and overriding any security measures set. There are two main types of buffer overflow attacks:
    stack-based buffer overflow attack:
    Stack-based buffer overflow attack uses a memory object known as a stack. The hacker develops the code which reserves a specific amount of space for the stack. If the input of user is longer than the amount of space reserved for it within the stack, then the stack will overflow.
    heap-based buffer overflow attack:
    Heap-based overflow attack floods the memory space reserved for the programs.
    Answer option A is incorrect. Session hijacking refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system. In particular, it is used to refer to the theft of a magic cookie used to authenticate a user to a remote server. It has particular relevance to Web developers, as the HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on many Web sites can be easily stolen by an attacker using an intermediary computer or with access to the saved cookies on the victim’s computer (see HTTP cookie theft).
    TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines. Since most authentication only occurs at the start of a TCP session, this allows the hacker to gain access to a machine.
  13. Which of the following is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security?

    • IPSec
    • IP
    • PPP
    • L2TP
    Explanation:
    Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password.
    IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP).
    Answer option B is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across a packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.
    IP is the primary protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering distinguished protocol datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on their addresses. For this purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for datagram encapsulation. The first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed actively worldwide.
    Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet. It supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. It can connect to a network running on the IPX, TCP/IP, or NetBEUI protocol. It supports multi-protocol and dynamic IP assignments. It is the default protocol for the Microsoft Dial-Up adapter.
    Answer option D is incorrect. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a more secure version of Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). It provides tunneling, address assignment, and authentication. It allows the transfer of Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) traffic between different networks. L2TP combines with IPSec to provide tunneling and security for Internet Protocol (IP), Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), and other protocol packets across IP networks.
  14. Which of the following is a computer networking protocol used by hosts to retrieve IP address assignments and other configuration information?

    • SNMP
    • ARP
    • DHCP
    • Telnet
    Explanation:
    The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a computer networking protocol used by hosts (DHCP clients) to retrieve IP address assignments and other configuration information. DHCP uses a client-server architecture. The client sends a broadcast request for configuration information. The DHCP server receives the request and responds with configuration information from its configuration database.
    In the absence of DHCP, all hosts on a network must be manually configured individually – a time-consuming and often error-prone undertaking. DHCP is popular with ISP’s because it allows a host to obtain a temporary IP address.
    Answer option B is incorrect. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets.
    Answer option A is incorrect. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows a monitored device (for example, a router or a switch) to run an SNMP agent. This protocol is used for managing many network devices remotely.
    When a monitored device runs an SNMP agent, an SNMP server can then query the SNMP agent running on the device to collect information such as utilization statistics or device configuration information. An SNMP-managed network typically consists of three components: managed devices, agents, and one or more network management systems.
    Answer option D is incorrect. Telnet (Telecommunication network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive communications facility. Typically, Telnet provides access to a command-line interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). User data is interspersed in-band with TELNET control information. Typically, the Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port number 23.
  15. Adam, a malicious hacker, has just succeeded in stealing a secure cookie via a XSS attack. He is able to replay the cookie even while the session is valid on the server. Which of the following is the most likely reason of this cause?

    • Encryption is performed at the network layer (layer 1 encryption).
    • Encryption is performed at the application layer (single encryption key).
    • No encryption is applied.
    • Two way encryption is applied.
    Explanation:
    Single key encryption uses a single word or phrase as the key. The same key is used by the sender to encrypt and the receiver to decrypt. Sender and receiver initially need to have a secure way of passing the key from one to the other. With TLS or SSL this would not be possible. Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt data. Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster than public key encryption. Therefore, it is commonly used when a message sender needs to encrypt a large amount of data. Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses the symmetric encryption key algorithm to encrypt data.
  16. Which of the following is a maintenance protocol that permits routers and host computers to swap basic control information when data is sent from one computer to another?

    • IGMP
    • ICMP
    • SNMP
    • BGP
    Explanation:
    Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a maintenance protocol that allows routers and host computers to swap basic control information when data is sent from one computer to another. It is generally considered a part of the IP layer. It allows the computers on a network to share error and status information. An ICMP message, which is encapsulated within an IP datagram, is very useful to troubleshoot the network connectivity and can be routed throughout the Internet.
    Answer option D is incorrect. BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol. It is an interautonomous system routing protocol and is a form of Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP). This protocol is defined in RFC-1267 and RFC-1268. It is used for exchanging network reachability information with other BGP systems. This information includes a complete list of intermediate autonomous systems that the network traffic has to cover in order to reach a particular network. This information is used for figuring out loop-free interdomain routing between autonomous systems.
    BGP-4 is the latest version of BGP.
    Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. IGMP is vulnerable to network attacks.
    Answer option C is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.
  17. Which of the following procedures is intended to provide security personnel to identify, mitigate, and recover from malware events, such as unauthorized access to systems or data, denial-of-service or unauthorized changes to the system hardware, software, or information?

    • None
    • disaster survival plan
    • Cyber Incident Response Plan
    • A resident of the emergency plan
    • Crisis communications guidelines
  18. John visits an online shop that stores the IDs and prices of the items to buy in a cookie. After selecting the items that he wants to buy, the attacker changes the price of the item to 1.
    Original cookie values:

    ItemID1=2
    ItemPrice1=900
    ItemID2=1
    ItemPrice2=200
    Modified cookie values:
    ItemID1=2
    ItemPrice1=1
    ItemID2=1
    ItemPrice2=1

    Now, he clicks the Buy button, and the prices are sent to the server that calculates the total price. Which of the following hacking techniques is John performing?

    • Computer-based social engineering
    • Man-in-the-middle attack
    • Cookie poisoning
    • Cross site scripting
    Explanation:
    John is performing cookie poisoning. In cookie poisoning, an attacker modifies the value of cookies before sending them back to the server. On modifying the cookie values, an attacker can log in to any other user account and can perform identity theft. The following figure explains how cookie poisoning occurs:
    312-38 Part 09 Q18 024
    312-38 Part 09 Q18 024

    For example:
    The attacker visits an online shop that stores the IDs and prices of the items to buy in a cookie. After selecting the items that he wants to buy, the attacker changes the price of the item to 1.
    Original cookie values:
    ItemID1= 2
    ItemPrice1=900
    ItemID2=1
    ItemPrice2=200
    Modified cookie values:
    ItemID1= 2
    ItemPrice1=1
    ItemID2=1
    ItemPrice2=1
    Now, the attacker clicks the Buy button and the prices are sent to the server that calculates the total price.
    Another use of a Cookie Poisoning attack is to pretend to be another user after changing the username in the cookie values:
    Original cookie values:
    LoggedIn= True
    Username = Mark
    Modified cookie values:
    LoggedIn= True
    Username = Admin
    Now, after modifying the cookie values, the attacker can do the admin login.
    Answer option D is incorrect. A cross site scripting attack is one in which an attacker enters malicious data into a Website. For example, the attacker posts a message that contains malicious code to any newsgroup site. When another user views this message, the browser interprets this code and executes it and, as a result, the attacker is able to take control of the user’s system. Cross site scripting attacks require the execution of client-side languages such as JavaScript, Java, VBScript, ActiveX, Flash, etc. within a user’s Web environment. With the help of a cross site scripting attack, the attacker can perform cookie stealing, sessions hijacking, etc.

  19. Which of the following policies is used to add additional information about the overall security posture and serves to protect employees and organizations from inefficiency or ambiguity?

    • User policy
    • Group policy
    • Issue-Specific Security Policy
    • IT policy
    Explanation:
    The Issue-Specific Security Policy (ISSP) is used to add additional information about the overall security posture. It helps in providing detailed, targeted guidance for instructing organizations in the secure use of tech systems. This policy serves to protect employees and organizations from inefficiency or ambiguity.
    Answer option A is incorrect. A user policy helps in defining what users can and should do to use network and organization’s computer equipment. It also defines what limitations are put on users for maintaining the network secure such as whether users can install programs on their workstations, types of programs users are using, and how users can access data.
    Answer option D is incorrect. IT policy includes general policies for the IT department. These policies are intended to keep the network secure and stable. It includes the following:
    Virus incident and security incident
    Backup policy
    Client update policies
    Server configuration, patch update, and modification policies (security)
    Firewall policies, Dmz policy, email retention, and auto forwarded email policy
    Answer option B is incorrect. A group policy specifies how programs, network resources, and the operating system work for users and computers in an organization.
  20. Which of the following UTP cables uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to 16 Mbps?

    • Category 5e
    • Category 5
    • Category 3
    • Category 6
    Explanation:
    Category 3 type of UTP cable uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to 16 Mbps. They are commonly used in Ethernet networks that operate at the speed of 10 Mbps. A higher speed is also possible by these cables implementing the Fast Ethernet (100Base-T4) specifications. This cable is used mainly for telephone systems.
    Answer option B is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is the most commonly used cable in present day networks. It consists of four twisted pairs and is used in those Ethernet networks that run at the speed of 100 Mbps. Category 5 cable can also provide a higher speed of up to 1000 Mbps.
    Answer option A is incorrect. It is also known as Category 5 Enhanced cable. Its specification is the same as category 5, but it has some enhanced features and is used in Ethernets that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps.
    Answer option D is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is designed to support high-speed networks that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps. It consists of four pairs of wire and uses all of them for data transmission. Category 6 provides more than twice the speed of Category 5e, but is also more expensive.